RPB300 Resolute Professional Billing Administration Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In Single Billing Office, what are lists of HB HARs and PB visit accounts that need review called?
• What is the profile that is similar to Hospital and Professional Billing Profiles due to containing service area settings?
• Debit/Credit determines how the procedure will impact the balance on a patient's account.
• "Someone please do this" corresponds to which term?
• What is the name of the tool for communicating charge information from clinical applications and interfaces to billing systems?
• Self-pay discounts can be configured using a fee schedule or what?
• How are follow-up records routed to ensure proper queue assignment and priority?
• What is the recommended order of queues from most specific to least specific?
• Which term is used to reclassify the charge as bad debt when the $0 write-off posts?
• In terms of utility, Automation Pulse most directly supports which goal?
• What term describes the order in which system action queues are prioritized?
• Which attributes are used to define eligibility for fee schedules?
• In the ______ section of the follow-up profile, you can specify a rule and a number of days to automatically defer follow-up records.
• Where are Automation Pulse metrics displayed?
• Automation Pulse is best described as:
• What is Epic's primary tool for self-service reporting that runs on Caboodle?
• Which of the following is an example of a Guarantor Activity?
• Which statement about automatic activities is true?
• Which term reclassifies the charge as external when the $0 write-off posts?
• Which type of security points reduces access to features within a module?
• In an eligibility group with two providers, what is the relationship between the providers?
• Which description matches a cascading tiered approval process?
• Which resource documents all Epic-released reports, SlicerDicer sessions, dashboards and dashboard components, whether you currently have access to them or not?
• What setting determines whether a procedure can be used in Resolute Professional Billing and controls routing of procedures?
• Which configuration is service-area specific and holds the rules that determine how credits are routed to workqueues?
• When a write-off is held for further review in an Adjustment Review workqueue, what must occur before the follow-up record completes?
• Which of the following best describes Account (HAR) Activities?
• When a visit's proposed filing order change is accepted, what happens to the visit's filing order?
• Because the rules in Workqueue Routing are prioritized, a credit record can only be in ONE credit workqueue at a time. The default catch-all workqueue should always be LAST in priority of the Workqueue Routing section.
• What are the three classifications used for a charged procedure record?
• Where are settings to define service and billing provider effective dates found?
• What would you expect Automation Pulse to summarize?
• Automation Pulse helps organizations understand what?
• The value proposition of Automation Pulse is primarily to:
• Executives can keep their finger on the organization's pulse with a web-based ______ designed just for them.
• Which is NOT a type of Account WQ?
• To qualify for a PB Revenue Guardian Check, the encounter must do which of the following?
• Best Practices Advisory Criteria records control which patient conditions must be present to trigger the advisory. Which phrase correctly describes these records?
• What context is used for non-denial insurance follow-up activities?
• Guarantor is eligible for a statement based on an assigned pre-determined schedule. Which cycle is this?
• What combination of rules must be met for a charge session to qualify for a Charge Review WQ when routing is enabled?
• To qualify for a Charge Review Work Queue using routing rules, a charge session must meet which conditions?
• Medication Charging allows charging for medications based on which events?
• Which component routes billing active procedures to Resolute Professional Billing?
• What is the primary purpose of Charge Review Workqueue Rules?
• A follow-up record can be in how many workqueues at a time?
• Writing off the balance of a follow-up record brings the balance due to what amount?
• System Action Queue (BWQ) determines what?
• The denial tracking record created in Epic is called which of the following?
• Which workspace provides the ability to perform Guarantor Activities?
• What is the purpose of System Deferral in follow-up processing?
• Take away permission to do something. Remove access to features within a module.
• Which component defines what message content is included in the notification and the settings for that specific notification?
• What does the Code field hold?
• If a workqueue has no routing rules, how are charge sessions routed?
• Grant permission to do something. Allow access to additional features available within a module.
• What is the name of the queue that uses rules to identify matching records and has a set of available actions to be performed?
• ______ adjust what a user can do within a module.
• A Follow-Up (FOL) is created when a claim is accepted within Epic and is completed when the charge becomes what for that payer?
• Guarantor is eligible for a statement as soon as a self-pay balance is due then on a regular schedule until the guarantor account balance reaches $0.00. Which cycle is this?
• Which master file contains records for clinicians and resources?
• Which term designates which group of users is responsible for specific edits or workqueues for reporting purposes?
• Which operators indicate past values for date filters?
• Large pieces of functionality within an application. Example: Claims, payment posting, charge entry, charge entry activity report, charge review work maintenance.
• Which term best fills the blank: Professional Billing ______ workqueues help your staff identify refunds, debit adjustments, and credit adjustments for professional charges that need to be reviewed before being posted.
• How is the Total Amount calculated?
• What term describes the mechanism that triggers charges when clinical activity is entered into the system?
• For each user with security to review adjustments, the specific level a user can approve must be listed in the user's record. When a user requests or approves an adjustment, the assigned approval level is associated with the adjustment, and the adjustment is routed for further review, if needed. What is this requirement called?
• Which section allows manually selecting the appropriate level of service for the encounter?
• What is the purpose of an Account WQ?
• Billing Status determines whether the procedure can be brought into which system?
• What does Visit Filing Order refer to?
• If there is no direct match between provider and department, which option is described as commonly used for matching?
• Appears when signing a chargeable note during inpatient rounding; organization determines which notes are chargeable and defines charge codes. What is this window called?
• SlicerDicer runs on Epic's data warehouse known as Caboodle.
• The system uses the service area's ______ to automatically route credit records to a workqueue. Within the Workqueue Routing section, workqueues are associated with rules.
• Do payments and adjustments receive a Bill Area? Is it true that only charges receive a Bill Area and payments/adjustments do not?
• What is the background process that tracks transactions over a day, with one for PB transactions and a separate one for HB transactions per service area?
• Which feature provides the ability to compare denial rates and reasons with other Epic organizations to improve revenue cycle efficiency?
• In Epic, a Follow-Up record (FOL) is composed of which two elements?
• Who benefits most from Automation Pulse?
• What does a Fee Schedule Group (FSG) allow?
• Context-Based Charging charges when what occurs?
• In Single Billing Office, where balances can include both Professional and Hospital Billing, a statement can only be generated for balances when both system batches are closed.
• In this system, what is used to determine which security rights a particular user has within each module?
• Which component can be directly associated with procedures to change the amount for a specific procedure/modifier combination?
• Which statement best aligns with the described product?
• What approval model uses predefined dollar amount brackets to determine the approving authority?
• In Resolute Professional Billing, which provider type is the one who actually saw the patient and rendered care for a procedure?
• What feature automatically captures charges based on clinical documentation and NoteWriter selections?
• What triggers a placeholder charge to be sent to PB Charge Review when a provider signs chargeable notes?
• Which master file is used to create and maintain Bill Area related records?
• Which system component automatically creates WQ's in the individual WQ Profiles?
• Which field is typically the same ID as the Code field?
• Which action transfers the liability to the next party in the filing order and completes the CVG change?
• Which cycle defines guarantor statements that are generated on a fixed, pre-determined schedule?
• Credit workqueues are ideally designed to resolve credits with no or minimal manual intervention.
• Which term defines what triggers a notification to the patient and groups multiple communication templates together?
• Can a fee schedule group contain multiple fee schedules in one group?
• The Foundation System SBO Collections ______ is a parent ______ made up of child ______(s). The parent ______ is used to outsource and send HARs to bad debt. The child ______(s) define the transaction data on the HARs to include in the ______.
• What is an optional class used to remove a balance from Active AR but not put it in Bad Debt AR?
• Where can follow-up records automatically deferred by the system be found?
• What is the term for the process of reviewing charges before they post to an account in RPB?
• Which workstream helps manage and resolve payments that create credit balances or are undistributed?
• What does the term 'Order of precedence for fee schedule groups' describe?
• Code Type determines the type of charge, such as CPT or HCPCS. Which option best describes this field?
• Which term describes the set that defines the workflows your insurance follow-up staff perform and can group actions into a single workflow by using defaults?
• Reduces the balance to $0.00.
• If there is only one Bill Area in the list, what will the system do?
• What criteria define what charges we should expect for these encounters?
• Which statement accurately describes follow-up workqueues?
• The Provider & Resource master file includes which of the following resource examples?
• Automation Pulse helps organizations answer which question most clearly?
• Procedure Type indicates the procedure should be used as a charge. This is a
• "This has been done" corresponds to which term?
• Which element defines what kind of workflow triggers a notification to the patient and allows settings to be shared across communication templates?
• Because ______ is in Hyperspace, users can jump directly to a record from the report.
• All charged procedure records are configured with a ______.
• Which term is used to describe the group of users with similar job responsibilities?
• Where is the Search Precedence ranking configured?
• Which statement best describes Automation Pulse?
• What is the intended design principle for system action workflows?
• How are charge sessions routed to workqueues when routing rules are present in the Charge Review workflow?
• In the system, PAT stands for which master file?
• Which criteria defines which encounter to check for missing charges in the BPA workflow?
• Imaging procedures can be charged differently based on whether they are performed in which setting?
• "Lets get paid for this," corresponds to which term given active billing status and CPT code type?
• Prelude can use rules to determine the appropriate default filing order for a particular visit. This configuration is referred to as the ______.
• A ______ defines what functionality a group of users can and cannot access in the system.
• Which tool allows supervisors and managers to track and compare role-specific productivity metrics for their team on a weekly basis, while giving users access to their own data for awareness?
• What is the background daily processing of transactions for HB and PB per service area?
• Which feature allows executives to compare key financial metrics with the Epic community and view trophies and top performers?
• Hospital Claim Procedure Type determines if a charge is considered professional or technical for claims purposes.
• Grouper Communication concept tracks how a patient wants to be contacted based on the type of communication. Which term is used?
• Errors and Warnings: Which type must be fixed by the end user?
• Which component changes the price by the percentage specified?
• What is a key capability of Automation Pulse?
• To determine which self-pay table applies to the patient, the system checks a prioritized list of rules in a ______.
• Indicates that this linked chargeable should be triggered by this orderable/performable and the substitution will take place in the charge router.
• RPB is the abbreviation for which system?
• Which component defines which group of users is responsible for working edits or workqueues for reporting purposes?
• Which level is the most specific for grouping charges?
• In the scenario described as 'Lets get paid for this,' which code type is used?
• Which statements pull HB and PB self-pay balances?
• What is the term used for the home workspace where managers monitor KPIs and drill down into detail?
• Which operators are used to count forward for future dates?
• Which section allows providers to manually enter additional procedures performed during a visit and review charges?
• Which option best represents the primary benefit of Automation Pulse?
• ______(s) allow you to designate the self-pay discount rates for your organization based on rules.
• Which feature lets you compare denial rates and reasons with other Epic organizations and identify opportunities to increase your revenue cycle efficiency?
• Which three levels form the grouping hierarchy?
• Which profile contains service area (or facility) settings and is similar to the Hospital and Professional Billing Profiles?
• What does the Patient-Friendly Name hold?
• Which feature provides targeted, patient-specific clinical guidance across clinical workflows in Hyperspace?
• Where are billing notifications types listed in Classic?
• Which term refers to executive-focused web dashboards that display organizational health?
• Which term describes the review and resolution of changes made to an existing visit's proposed filing order, occurring when an update creates a new proposed visit filing order?
• A ______ is a temporary record created by the system whenever a payment is posted in PB that does not fully match to an outstanding debit. This record is what is sent to a credit workqueue.
• ETR records are associated with which kind of data in the permanent transaction master file?
• Which term completes the sentence: The Foundation System SBO Collections ______ is a parent ______ that is used to outsource and send HARs to bad debt.
• Which term defines the data element that specifies the purpose of a charged procedure to influence downstream billing?
• What is Automation Pulse primarily designed to do?
• When an orderable/performable procedure is triggered from clinical charge sources, what must be done before billing?
• If the primary coverage for a visit changes, what action does the system automatically perform?
• Where each individual's information is stored including their security class and permissions.
• What allows you to search for reports, report templates, SlicerDicer sessions, dashboards, or dashboard components you have security to access all from one place?
• Which description best fits the meaning of the product name Automation Pulse in the material?
• Which element is used for context-based charging?
• What is the purpose of the date ranges in the Provider Effective Dates and Attributes screen?
• Which term describes a collection of permissions that can be assigned to users within a module?
• Which description best fits Automation Pulse's purpose?
• What happens to credit records that meet the criteria of a rule in the Workqueue Routing section?
• Which tool helps diagnose pricing issues by showing fee schedule group associations and missing prices?
• In this context, what does CVG stand for?
• In Classic, where are different types of billing notifications listed?